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Resigned DTC Employee’s Heirs Not Entitled To Pension | SC

DTC Employee Pension Entitlement

Case Details: Ashok Kumar Dabas vs. Delhi Transport Corporation - [2025] 181 taxmann.com 327 (SC)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Rajesh Bindal  & Manmohan, JJ.
  • Narender Kumar Verma, Aor for the Petitioner.
  • Aviral Saxena, AOR, Abhinav Sharma, Paritosh Goyal & Vedant Varshney, Advs. for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

In the instant case, the Deceased employee was working with the Delhi Transport Corporation (DTC). He had resigned from his job with the respondent, which is a corporation, after putting in more than 20 years of service. The competent authority accepted his resignation.

Later, his legal heirs claimed the release of the deceased employee’s pensionary benefits. The Respondent informed him that he was found entitled only to the provident fund and no other benefits.

The Tribunal and the High Court upheld the order of the respondent. Thereafter, an appeal was made before the Supreme Court.

It was noted that Rule 26 of the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972, clearly shows that the resignation from service entails forfeiture of past service. Further, in terms of section 4 of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, an employee who had rendered not less than five years of service would be entitled to the payment of gratuity, regardless of the fact that he had retired or resigned from the service.

Supreme Court Held

The Supreme Court held that since the deceased employee had resigned from service, his legal heirs were not entitled to any pension. Further, since the respondent could not establish that the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, did not apply to the Corporation, the legal heirs of the deceased employee were held entitled to receive the gratuity in terms of the provisions of the 1972 Act for the service rendered by him. Therefore, they were also entitled to receive an amount towards their leave encashment.

List of Cases Reviewed

  • Order of High Court of Delhi in WP(C) No. 13642-2018, dated 20-12-2022 (para 12) reversed

List of Cases Referred to

  • Ashok Kumar Dabas v. Delhi Transport Corporation [O. A. No. 4645 of 2015, dated 24-9-2018] (para 2)
  • Ashok Kumar Dabas v. Delhi Transport Corporation [R. A. No. 207 of 2018, dated 29-10-2018] (para 2)
  • Shashikala Devi v. Central Bank of India [2015] 12 taxmann.com 790 (SC) (para 5.1)
  • Reserve Bank of India v. Cecil Dennis Solomon [2004] 2003 taxmann.com 4421 (SC) (para 5.1)
  • Shanti Devi v. Delhi Transport Corporation [W. P. (C) No. 4871 of 2010, dated 15-10-2012] (para 5.1)
  • Delhi Transport Corporation v. Ram Kishan [W. P. (C) No. 2627 of 2015, dated 17-3-2015] (para 5.1)
  • BSES Yamuna Power Ltd. v. Ghanshyam Chand Sharma [2019] 112 taxmann.com 128 (SC) (para 6)
  • Raj Kumar v. Union of India 2017 SCC OnLine Del 10877 (para 6).

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Govt Amends Rules On Removal Of Company Names

Removal Of Company Names Amendment Rules

Notification no. GSR 940(E); Dated: 31.12.2025

1. Introduction

The Central Government has amended the rules governing the removal of company names from the Register of Companies through Notification No. GSR 940(E), dated 31 December 2025. The amendment introduces a specific procedural requirement for Government Companies and their subsidiaries.

2. Amendment To Removal Of Names Rules

The notification brings into effect the Companies (Removal of Names of Companies from the Register of Companies) Amendment Rules, 2025. These amendments modify the existing framework under which companies may apply for or be subjected to removal of their names from the Register of Companies.

3. Special Provision For Government Companies

As per the amended norms, where the company concerned is a Government Company, including its subsidiaries, additional safeguards have been prescribed. The amendment specifically addresses cases involving directors appointed or nominated by the Central or State Government.

4. Indemnity Bond Authorisation Requirement

The rules now mandate that the indemnity bond in respect of one or more Government-appointed or nominated directors must be executed by an authorised representative not below the rank of Under Secretary or equivalent. Such authorisation must be from the concerned administrative Ministry or Department of the Government of India or the State Government, as applicable.

5. Conclusion

The amendment strengthens accountability and procedural clarity in cases involving Government Companies seeking removal of their names. Stakeholders should ensure compliance with the revised indemnity bond requirements while initiating name-removal applications under the amended rules.

Click Here To Read The Full Notification 

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MCA Replaces Annual Director KYC With Triennial KYC

Director KYC Amendment By MCA

Press Release; Dated: 01.01.2026

1. Introduction

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has simplified director compliance requirements by replacing the annual Director KYC filing with a once-in-three-years KYC intimation. The change has been notified through a press release dated 1 January 2026.

2. Amendment To Rule 12A

To give effect to this change, MCA has amended Rule 12A of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014. The amendment does away with the mandatory annual KYC filing and introduces a streamlined compliance mechanism aimed at reducing the recurring compliance burden on directors.

3. Revised KYC Intimation Framework

Under the revised framework, directors are required to file a simplified KYC intimation once every three years using a revised KYC form. The form captures essential particulars such as mobile number, email address, and residential address, ensuring that MCA records remain updated without repetitive filings.

4. Verification And DIN Reactivation

The amendment provides for reactivation of Director Identification Number (DIN) through the revised KYC process. Verification and professional certification requirements have been restricted to specified cases only, making the process more efficient while maintaining regulatory safeguards.

5. Conclusion

The replacement of annual Director KYC with a triennial KYC intimation marks a significant step towards ease of compliance. Directors and companies should familiarise themselves with the revised filing requirements to ensure timely and accurate compliance under the amended Rule 12A.

Click Here To Read The Full Press Release 

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Services Without Forex Receipt Taxable | HC

Taxability Of Services Without Forex Receipt

Case Details: Dhl Express (India) (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India - [2025] 181 taxmann.com 697 (Delhi)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Prathiba M. Singh & Shail Jain, JJ.
  • Rohan Shah, Sr. Adv. & Mohammed Anajwalla, Adv. for the Petitioner.
  • Ms Vaishali Gupta, Panel Counsel, Akash Panwar, Jr. Standing Counsel, Ms Jasleen Kaur Anand, Adv. & Ajay Chowdhary, SPC for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The petitioner-assessee was providing courier and shipment delivery services under a Network Agreement with a foreign entity located in Germany, pursuant to which their respective clients were serviced in India and Germany without any consideration being exchanged between the two entities. The petitioner discharged tax treating the activity as a supply of service under section 7(1)(a) of the CGST Act, despite absence of consideration. It was submitted that since the recipient entity was located outside India, the services qualified as export of services and zero-rated supply under section 16 of the IGST Act, notwithstanding non-receipt of consideration in convertible foreign exchange. The petitioner contended that the statutory conditions governing zero-rated supply created an incongruity requiring interpretation by the High Court. The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

High Court Held

The High Court held that non-receipt of consideration in convertible foreign exchange does not exempt the assessee from payment of tax on the supply of services, but only disentitles the assessee from availing benefits arising from export of services. It held that section 7 of the CGST Act, read with sections 16(1)(a) and 2(6) of the IGST Act, requires harmonious interpretation to determine taxability and eligibility for zero-rated treatment. The Court observed that absence of foreign exchange realization impacts only export benefits and not the levy of tax. Noting that similar issues were pending before multiple High Courts, the Court observed that the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) should examine the issue and place its stand before the High Court.

List of Cases Referred to

  • DHL Express India (P) Ltd. v. Union of India [Writ Petition No. 3977 of 2025, dated 19-11-2025] (para 11)
  • Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India (1997) 5 SCC 536 (para 12).

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ICAI Extends Phase IV Peer Review Mandate

Phase IV Peer Review Extension

1. Introduction

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has extended the applicability of Phase IV of the Peer Review mandate, providing additional time for Practice Units to comply with the peer review requirements before undertaking specified audit engagements.

2. Applicability Of Peer Review Mandate

Under the Peer Review framework, Practice Units proposing to audit branches of Public Sector Banks and firms having three or more partners rendering attestation services are required to hold a valid Peer Review Certificate prior to accepting statutory audit assignments.

3. Phase IV Peer Review Timeline

Phase IV of the Peer Review mandate was scheduled to become applicable from 1 January 2026. However, considering practical challenges and representations from members, the ICAI Council has decided to extend the applicability period.

4. Extended Deadline And Relief Granted

The ICAI Council has now extended the Phase IV Peer Review mandate up to 31 December 2026. This extension provides significant relief to eligible Practice Units, allowing additional time to complete the peer review process without affecting their eligibility for statutory audits.

5. Conclusion

The extension of Phase IV of the Peer Review mandate offers a welcome compliance window for Practice Units. Firms should utilise this extended timeline to complete the peer review process and ensure uninterrupted eligibility for statutory and bank branch audit assignments.

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IFSCA Renews Recognition Of India ICC For 3 Years

India ICC Recognition Renewal

NOTIFICATION NO. F. NO. IFSCA/INDIA ICC/RENEWAL/2025-26, Dated: 01.01.2026

1. Introduction

The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has granted renewal of recognition to India International Clearing Corporation Limited (India ICC) in the interest of trade, the securities market, and the public interest.

2. Notification And Authority

The renewal has been accorded vide Notification No. F. No. IFSCA/INDIA ICC/RENEWAL/2025-26, dated 1 January 2026. The decision follows IFSCA’s assessment of the clearing corporation’s regulatory compliance and operational framework.

3. Period Of Renewal

The recognition has been renewed for a period of three years, commencing from 29 December 2025 and continuing until 28 December 2028, unless modified or withdrawn in accordance with applicable regulations.

4. Conditions Attached To Recognition

The renewal is subject to the condition that India International Clearing Corporation Limited shall comply with all conditions specified by IFSCA from time to time. Ongoing adherence to regulatory, governance, and risk-management requirements remains mandatory during the renewal period.

5. Conclusion

The renewal of recognition reaffirms IFSCA’s confidence in the functioning of India ICC and its role in supporting the IFSC securities market. Continued compliance with IFSCA’s regulatory framework will be essential throughout the renewed term.

Click Here To Read The Full Notification 

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NFRA Insights On Risk And Response Memorandum

NFRA Risk And Response Memorandum

1. Introduction

The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has issued a Staff Series document titled “Risk & Response Memorandum: ROMM Assessment at Assertion Level for Revenue – A Sample Document”. The publication serves as an educational and illustrative guide, demonstrating how auditors should perform and document a robust Risk of Material Misstatement (ROMM) assessment in compliance with Standards on Auditing (SAs).

2. Risk Assessment – The Cornerstone of Audit Planning

The toolkit issued by NFRA discusses about that risk assessment under SA 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement Through Understanding the Entity and Its Environment. Further, it suggests that theauditors are required to identify and assess ROMM through a comprehensive understanding of:

(a) The entity and its operating environment

(b) The applicable financial reporting framework

(c) The design and operating effectiveness of internal controls, including IT systems

Risk of Material Misstatement (ROMM) exists at both the financial statement level and the assertion level for classes of transactions, account balances and disclosures. At the assertion level inherent risk and control risk exist, while detection risk is addressed through appropriately designed audit procedures.

3. Identifying What Could Go Wrong

The NFRA guidance underscores the importance of linking identified risks to specific assertions such as occurrence, completeness, accuracy, cut-off and valuation. Auditors are expected to articulate “what could go wrong” at the assertion level and evaluate whether existing controls are capable of preventing or detecting material misstatements on a timely basis.

The toolkit also recognises situations where substantive procedures alone may be insufficient, particularly in highly automated, high-volume transactions environments, thereby necessitating reliance on controls.

4. Illustrative case study – Revenue audit of a pharmaceutical company

Using a hypothetical listed pharmaceutical company, the toolkit demonstrates a practical application of ROMM assessment for revenue from sale of products under Ind AS 115, Revenue from Contracts with Customers. Key risk drivers identified by NFRA include:

(a) Variable consideration in the form of discounts, rebates and sales returns

(b) Large transaction volumes processed through automated ERP systems

(c) Increased susceptibility to cut-off errors near period-end

(d) Potential management bias in estimating sales returns and chargebacks

5. Aligning Risks with Audit Responses

A key strength of the NFRA toolkit is its clear demonstration of how identified ROMMs have impacts on auditor’s response. Further, this toolkit also maps each identified risk with relevant assertions, manual and automated controls, control reliance strategy. It also discusses about the nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures.

Moreover, illustrative procedures include customer confirmations, invoice-to-delivery testing, period-end cut-off testing, post year-end sales return analysis and detailed testing of management estimates using retrospective review techniques.

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IFSCA Renews Recognition Of India INX For 3 Years

India INX Recognition Renewal

NOTIFICATION NO. F. NO. IFSCA/INDIA INX/RENEWAL/2025-26, Dated: 01.01.2026

1. Introduction

The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has granted renewal of recognition to India International Exchange Limited (India INX) in the interest of trade, the securities market, and the public at large.

2. Notification And Authority

The renewal has been granted vide Notification No. F. No. IFSCA/INDIA INX/RENEWAL/2025-26, dated 1 January 2026. The decision follows IFSCA’s assessment of the exchange’s operations and its role within the international financial services framework.

3. Period Of Renewal

The recognition has been renewed for a period of three years, commencing from 29 December 2025 and continuing until 28 December 2028, unless otherwise modified or withdrawn in accordance with applicable regulations.

4. Conditions Attached To Recognition

The renewal of recognition is subject to the condition that India International Exchange Limited shall comply with all conditions specified by IFSCA from time to time. Continued compliance with regulatory, operational, and governance requirements remains mandatory during the renewal period.

5. Conclusion

The renewal of recognition reaffirms IFSCA’s confidence in India INX’s functioning and its contribution to the development of the IFSC securities market. The exchange must ensure strict adherence to IFSCA’s regulatory framework throughout the renewed term.

Click Here To Read The Full Notification 

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SEBI Mandates NISM Certification For AIF Compliance Officers

NISM Certification For AIF Compliance Officers

Circular no. HO/19/(8)2025-AFD-POD1/I/1266/2025; Dated: 30.12.2025

1. Introduction

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced a mandatory certification requirement for Compliance Officers of Managers of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). This move aims to strengthen regulatory compliance and ensure that compliance functions within AIFs are handled by adequately qualified professionals.

2. Mandatory NISM Certification Requirement

SEBI has specified that Compliance Officers of AIF Managers must obtain certification from the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM). The prescribed qualification is the NISM Series III-C: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Fund) Certification Examination, which focuses on regulatory frameworks, compliance obligations, and fund-related governance standards.

3. Applicability To Existing And New Appointments

The requirement applies to individuals currently serving as Compliance Officers as well as those appointed in the future. AIF Managers are responsible for ensuring that their Compliance Officers acquire and maintain the prescribed certification within the stipulated timeline.

4. Effective Date And Compliance Timeline

SEBI has clarified that with effect from 1 January 2027, only individuals who have successfully obtained the NISM certification may be appointed as Compliance Officers of AIF Managers. This provides a transition period for existing officers to meet the certification requirement.

5. Conclusion

By mandating NISM certification for Compliance Officers of AIF Managers, SEBI seeks to enhance compliance standards and reinforce investor protection in the alternative investment space. AIF Managers should proactively plan for certification to ensure uninterrupted compliance with regulatory requirements.

Click Here To Read The Full Circular 

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[Opinion] ITAT Mumbai Reaffirms Evidentiary Standards In Reassessment

ITAT Mumbai Reassessment Ruling

Piyush Bafna – [2025] 181 taxmann.com 957 (Article)

1. Introduction

The decision rendered by the Mumbai Bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in Veda Real Estate Corporation (P.) Ltd. v. DCIT, dated October 28, 2025 [2025] 180 taxmann.com 331 (Mumbai – Trib.), stands as a significant judicial pronouncement that addresses multiple critical dimensions of contemporary tax jurisprudence. This judgment, emanating from Assessment Year 2012-13 but decided in the context of the post-2022 faceless assessment regime, weaves together several strands of legal principle: the evidentiary value of materials seized during search operations, the procedural imperatives governing reassessment proceedings, the jurisdictional framework established by the Faceless Assessment Scheme under Section 151A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act), and the mandatory compliance with administrative circulars issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

What renders this decision particularly noteworthy is not merely its outcome—the deletion of additions aggregating Rs. 4,20,070 under Sections 69A and 69B of the Act—but rather the comprehensive analytical framework deployed by the Tribunal in scrutinizing the foundational premises of the assessment. The judgment represents a forceful reassertion of fundamental principles: that tax assessment must rest upon credible evidence rather than conjecture, that procedural safeguards are not mere formalities but jurisdictional prerequisites, and that the faceless assessment regime constitutes a mandatory framework that cannot be circumvented at the convenience of the revenue authorities.

This article undertakes a critical examination of the decision from multiple analytical perspectives: substantive evidentiary principles, procedural compliance, jurisdictional imperatives, and the broader implications for assessment practice. The analysis demonstrates that while the Tribunal’s decision is doctrinally sound and procedurally meticulous, it also exposes systemic deficiencies in investigative methodology and assessment practice that merit sustained attention.

2. Factual Matrix And Procedural History

A. The Search Operation and Seized Material

The genesis of the controversy lies in a search and survey operation conducted by the Investigation Wing of the Income Tax Department on October 7, 2021, at the premises of the Seksaria Group of Companies, which encompassed the assessee company, Veda Real Estate Corporation (P.) Ltd. The assessee, incorporated specifically for the acquisition of land parcels in and around Agarsure, formed part of this larger corporate conglomerate.

During the course of the search, the Investigation Wing discovered and seized certain Excel-based management information sheets from the laptop of Mr. Tarun Nandkumar Seksaria (TNS). These documents, according to the revenue authorities, contained notings suggestive of cash investment for the acquisition of land at Agarsure. The significance attributed to these Excel sheets by the Assessing Officer formed the primary evidentiary foundation for the subsequent additions.

Contemporaneously with the seizure of these documents, statements were recorded from TNS on October 9, 2021, and from Mr. Nandkumar Kudilal Seksaria (NKS), the principal person in charge of the Seksaria Group, on October 11, 2021, and subsequently on April 4, 2022. These statements, recorded under Section 132(4) of the Act during and immediately following the search, constituted the second pillar of the revenue’s case.

B. The Assessment and Appellate Proceedings

Drawing primarily upon the seized Excel sheets and the statements recorded from TNS and NKS, the Assessing Officer proceeded to make additions aggregating Rs. 4,20,070 under Sections 69A and 69B of the Act, characterizing these amounts as unexplained cash investment in land. The assessment order was passed on March 28, 2023.
Significantly, both TNS and NKS had formally retracted their statements before the Assessing Officer through written communications dated December 22, 2022, and February 7, 2023, respectively. The retractions were accompanied by detailed explanations asserting that: (i) they were unaware their statements would be used against the assessee company; (ii) the seized Excel sheets were not prepared by any director or employee of the assessee but were rather management information statements prepared by the late Mr. Pratap Daji Gambhir (PDG), who served as the land aggregator; and (iii) the figures in the Excel sheets represented estimates of costs, projections, and potential profits rather than actual cash payments.
The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)], by order dated April 15, 2025, confirmed the additions made by the Assessing Officer, albeit with certain modifications. The CIT(A)’s order dismissed the retractions as afterthoughts and upheld the evidentiary value of the seized materials and the original statements.
Aggrieved by the CIT(A)’s order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT Mumbai, raising both substantive grounds challenging the additions on merits and procedural grounds attacking the validity of the reassessment proceedings themselves.

3. Legal Issues Framed

The appeal before the Tribunal encompassed four distinct categories of legal issues, each raising fundamental questions of tax jurisprudence:

(1) Whether additions under Sections 69A and 69B could be sustained on the basis of Excel sheets found during search when: (a) the Excel sheets were admittedly not prepared by any director or employee of the assessee company but by an external land aggregator; (b) the statements of TNS and NKS, which purportedly explained the Excel entries, were contradictory to each other; (c) both statements were subsequently retracted with cogent reasoning; and (d) no independent corroborative evidence was adduced by the revenue to substantiate the alleged cash transactions.

(2) Whether the reassessment proceedings initiated under Section 148 were vitiated in law when the notice was issued by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) rather than the Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO) in contravention of the Faceless Assessment Scheme notified under Section 151A of the Act vide Notification S.O. 1466(E) dated March 29, 2022.

(3) Whether the assessment order was rendered invalid for non-compliance with CBDT Circular No. 19 of 2019 dated August 14, 2019, when the Document Identification Number (DIN) was generated and communicated only on March 30, 2023—two days after the assessment order dated March 28, 2023—thereby resulting in an assessment order that, at the time of its issuance, bore no valid DIN.

(4) Whether the notice under Section 148 dated January 27, 2023, was fundamentally defective when it proceeded on the premise that a search under Section 132 had been conducted on the assessee, whereas admittedly no search was ever conducted on the assessee itself (the search having been conducted on the Seksaria Group premises generally).

Click Here To Read The Full Article 

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