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SEBI Eases Accreditation Norms for AIF Investors

SEBI accredited investor norms for AIFs

Circular No. HO/19/34/11(9)2025-AFD-POD1/I/2286/2026; Dated: 09.01.2026

1. Introduction

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has simplified the regulatory requirements governing the grant of accreditation to Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) investors.

2. Regulatory Background

The revised norms have been issued vide Circular No. HO/19/34/11(9)2025-AFD-POD1/I/2286/2026 dated 09 January 2026, easing procedural requirements for accredited investor participation in AIF schemes.

3. Early Execution of Contribution Agreements

Under the updated framework, AIF investment managers are permitted to finalise and execute contribution agreements with investors even before formal accreditation certificates are issued by recognised accreditation agencies.

4. Conditions on Corpus and Fund Acceptance

While early execution is allowed, investor commitments will not be counted towards the scheme’s corpus until accreditation is obtained. Further, funds can be accepted only after issuance of the accreditation certificate, ensuring regulatory safeguards remain intact.

5. Conclusion

The simplified accreditation framework strikes a balance between ease of doing business for AIFs and investor protection, facilitating smoother onboarding of accredited investors without diluting compliance standards.

Click Here To Read The Full Circular 

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Binny Bansal Held Resident in India Despite Singapore Shift | ITAT

Residential status under the Income-tax Act

Case Details: Binny Bansal v. DCIT - [2026] 182 taxmann.com 226 (Bangalore - Trib.) 

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Prashant Maharishi, Vice President
  •  Keshav Dubey, Judicial Member
  • Percy Pardiwala, Sr. Adv. for the Appellant.
  • Arvind Kamath, ASG for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The principal issue before the ITAT was the determination of the residential status of the assessee, Mr. Binny Bansal, for AY 2020-21 under section 6(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Specifically, the controversy centred on whether the assessee, who had taken up employment in Singapore, could claim the benefit of Explanation 1(b) to section 6(1)(c) by contending that he was “being outside India” and therefore subject to the 182-day threshold, or whether he was liable to be treated as a resident in India by applying the 60-day rule, having stayed in India for more than 365 days in the preceding four years.

ITAT Held

The Tribunal ruled as follows:

a)The Tribunal examined the scheme of section 6(1)(c) of the Act and held that the basic conditions for residence under domestic law were clearly satisfied in the assessee’s case. It noted that the assessee had been in India for more than 365 days during the four years preceding FY 2019-20 and had stayed in India for more than 60 days during the relevant previous year, thereby fulfilling the statutory requirements for being treated as a resident, unless the assessee could validly bring himself within the scope of Explanation 1.

b)On the interpretation of Explanation 1(b) to section 6(1)(c), the Tribunal agreed with the Assessing Officer and the DRP that the benefit of the extended 182-day threshold is intended only for individuals who are otherwise non-residents and who visit India, and not for persons who were ordinarily residents in India in the preceding years. The ITAT held that the expression “being outside India” cannot be read in isolation, and must be harmoniously construed with the main charging provision of section 6(1)(c). According to the Tribunal, the Explanation is a relaxation provision, meant to protect the non-resident status of persons already outside the Indian tax net, and cannot be invoked to convert a resident into a non-resident.

c)The Tribunal further observed that the assessee had been a resident of India for several consecutive years, including the immediately preceding years, and that his presence in India during FY 2019-20 was not merely casual or incidental. The assessee had visited India multiple times for business and personal reasons, and even after his alleged relocation, he spent a substantial portion of the year in India. Therefore, the Tribunal held that the assessee could not be characterised as a person who merely “came on a visit to India”.

d)With respect to the assessee’s alternative reliance on Explanation 1(a) (leaving India for employment), the Tribunal rejected this argument on the ground that Explanation 1(a) applies only to the previous year in which the individual leaves India for employment purposes. The facts on record established that the assessee left India in February 2019, which fell in the previous year 2018-19 relevant to assessment year 2019-20, not in the previous year 2019-20 relevant to assessment year 2020-21 under consideration.

e)The Tribunal also took note of the assessee’s long-standing economic and personal connections with India, including ownership of residential properties and significant business interests, and held that the conditions for invoking Explanation 1(a) were not satisfied.

f)The ITAT further examined the assessee’s claim under the India–Singapore DTAA, particularly Article 4(2), which addresses tie-breaker rules. It held that since the assessee was found to be a resident under Indian domestic law, the mere fact that he may also qualify as a resident of Singapore would not automatically entitle him to treaty benefits. In fact, the Tribunal accepted the Revenue’s finding that the assessee had a permanent home available in India, and that his centre of vital and economic interests continued to remain in India, especially considering the source and nature of his wealth and business activities.

g)On the issue of habitual abode and nationality, the Tribunal observed that the assessee was an Indian citizen who had lived and carried on his principal activities in India for most of his life, and that his relocation to Singapore did not, by itself, displace India as his habitual abode for the year under consideration. Consequently, even under the treaty tie-breaker analysis, the assessee could not dislodge India as the country of residence.

h)In light of the above findings, the ITAT upheld the conclusions of the AO and the DRP and held that the assessee was resident and ordinarily resident in India for AY 2020-21. As a corollary, the Tribunal held that the capital gains arising from the sale of shares were taxable in India, and the assessee was not entitled to claim exemption under Article 13(5) of the India–Singapore DTAA.

List of Cases Reviewed

List of Cases Referred to

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SEBI Proposes Simplified Trading Framework for Stock Exchanges

SEBI consultation paper on consolidated trading framework

Consultation Paper; Dated: 09.01.2026

1. Introduction

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed a major overhaul of the trading-related framework at stock exchanges with the objective of reducing compliance burden for market participants.

2. Background of the Proposal

The proposal has been released through a Consultation Paper dated 09 January 2026, seeking to rationalise and streamline multiple regulatory provisions governing trading activities across stock exchanges.

3. Consolidation of Trading Provisions

SEBI has suggested merging overlapping provisions relating to trading, price bands, bulk and block deal disclosures, call auction mechanisms, trading hours, and daily price limits into a single consolidated framework.

4. Applicability Across Market Segments

The proposed unified framework would apply uniformly to both the equity and commodity segments, eliminating duplication and enhancing regulatory clarity for exchanges and market participants.

5. Conclusion

SEBI has invited public comments on the proposal up to 30 January 2026. The move reflects SEBI’s intent to simplify market regulations, improve operational efficiency, and strengthen ease of doing business in the securities market.

Click Here To Read The Full Update 

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Penalty Under Sec. 129(1)(b) Invalid for Registered Owner | HC

Penalty under Section 129 of the CGST Act

Case Details: Aviraj Trading vs. State of U.P. - [2026] 182 taxmann.com 87 (Allahabad) 

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Saumitra Dayal Singh & Vivek Saran, JJ.
  • Rishi Raj Kapoor for the Petitioner.
  • Arvind Kumar Mishra, Learned counsel for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The petitioner challenged the penalty order passed under Section 129(1)(b) of the CGST Act. The petitioner’s goods and conveyance were detained during transit, and a penalty was imposed. It was submitted that at the time of detention, the goods were accompanied by a valid e-way bill and tax invoice. All requisite documents were produced promptly after the detention of the goods, and there was no dispute regarding the owner’s identity or registration status. Despite these facts, the penalty was imposed. The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

High Court Held

The High Court held that Section 129(1)(b) applies only in cases where the owner of the goods does not come forward, whereas Section 129(1)(a) governs situations where the owner is identifiable, and the goods are accompanied by proper documents. The Court held that the goods were supported by a valid e-way bill and tax invoice clearly indicating the registered owner, and the invocation of Section 129(1)(b) was legally unsustainable. The Court set aside the impugned penalty order and directed the authorities to determine the penalty strictly in terms of Section 129(1)(a) of the CGST Act read with the Uttar Pradesh GST Act.

List of Cases Referred to

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Company Liable for EPF Delay Damages as Separate Entity | HC

Damages under Section 14B of the EPF Act

Case Details: Janatha Tile Works Ltd. vs. Employees Provident Fund Organization - [2025] 181 taxmann.com 639 (HC - Kerala)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Anil K. NarendranMuralee Krishna S., JJ.
  • B. Sajeev Kumar, Adv. for the Petitioner.
  • Abraham P. Meachinkara, Adv. for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

In the instant case, the appellant company was directed to pay damages under Section 14B of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, for the delay in payment of contributions to the Employees’ Provident Fund.

The appellant filed a writ petition seeking a declaration that it was not liable to pay damages and interest pursuant to the order of the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner. The Writ petition was dismissed by the Single Judge.
The appellant filed an instant writ appeal contending that previous management had transferred ownership and management of the company to its workers, who were then running the company, and on that basis sought that the proceedings be interdicted.

High Court Held

The High Court held that once a default in payment of the contribution is admitted, the employer is liable to pay damages for the delay in payment of the Employees’ Provident Fund Contribution. Further, since a company is a legal person, separate and distinct from its individual members, the appellant company was liable to pay damages for the delay in payment of the Employees’ Provident Fund contribution.
Therefore, there was no reason to interfere with the impugned judgment of the Single Judge, and the instant writ appeal was to be dismissed.

List of Cases Reviewed

List of Cases Referred to

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Receipts From Leasing Educational Infrastructure Taxable as Business Income | ITAT

Business income vs income from house property

Case Details: Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Nord Anglia Education Infrastructure (P.) Ltd. [2025] 181 taxmann.com 240 (Visakhapatnam - Trib.)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Ravish Sood, Judicial Member
  • Balakrishnan S., Accountant Member
  • Karnjot Singh Khurana, Snehal Rajan ShuklaAvar Lamba, Advs. for the Appellant.
  • Badicala Yadagiri, CIT-DR for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The assessee-company was engaged in the business of providing land, buildings, and other infrastructure to educational institutions. For relevant assessment years, it filed its returns disclosing receipts from leasing its buildings to associate educational societies, offering receipts as business income.
However, the Assessing Officer assessed receipts under the head ‘Income from house property’. CIT(A) held in favour of the assessee. The matter reached before the Tribunal.

ITAT Held

The Tribunal ruled that the assessee constructed a custom-built educational infrastructure with a built-up area as required by the lessee-educational society and entered into lease agreements for land and buildings along with multiple service agreements such as housekeeping, security, transport management, playground and sports-facility maintenance, and CCTV monitoring.
Since assessee was engaged in complex commercial exploitation of large-scale educational infrastructure along with multi-facet associated services, and was not a passive landlord, subject receipts from its said multi-facet activities clearly fell within the meaning of “business receipts” and could not be assessed as its income under the head “Income from house property”.

List of Cases Reviewed I

List of Cases Reviewed II

List of Cases Referred to

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Senior Citizen’s Appeal Delay Condoned Due to Consultant Reliance | HC

Condonation of delay under Section 107 of the CGST Act

Case Details: Debapriya Chatterjee vs. State of West Bengal - [2026] 182 taxmann.com 140 (Calcutta)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Om Narayan Rai, J
  • Himangshu Kumar Ray, Subhasis Podder & Gaurav Chakraborty, Advs. for the Petitioner.
  • S.K. Dutta, Tanmoy Chakraborty & Saptak Sanyal, Advs. for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The petitioner challenged the dismissal of his statutory appeal under Section 107 of the CGST Act on the ground of limitation. The appeal against the adjudication order had been rejected as time-barred. The petitioner submitted that the relevant notices and the adjudication order had been uploaded on the GST portal under the head ‘Additional Notices and Orders’ and that he had relied upon his tax consultant and the e-mail ID of a third person for receiving communications. It was contended that, due to his advanced age and dependence on professional assistance, he could not independently track portal updates or e-mails, which led to the delay in filing the appeal. The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

High Court Held

The High Court held that the portal screenshots established that the notices and adjudication order had indeed been uploaded on the GST portal, and that no satisfactory cause was shown for failure to track communications, except the petitioner’s advanced age and reliance on his consultant. The Court accordingly condoned the delay on terms and directed that upon payment of costs, the order dismissing the appeal as time-barred would lose its effect and the appeal would stand restored before the Appellate Authority. It was held that upon such compliance, the attachment of the petitioner’s bank account under Section 83 was to be lifted.

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Section 14B Damages Set Aside For Lack Of Calculation | HC

Section 14B Damages Set Aside

Case Details: Central Board of Trustees vs. Registrar Central Government Industrial Tribunal - [2025] 181 taxmann.com 313 (HC - Calcutta)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Shampa Dutt (Paul), J.
  • Shiv Chandra Prasad for the Petitioner.
  • Arnab Dutt for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

In the instant case, the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (Damage Cell) in proceedings under section 14B of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, held that the establishment was liable to pay damages for the delayed remittance of EPF contribution for the period from March 2005 to April 2011 and from April 2011 to March 2014. The total dues were assessed at Rs. 9,17,552.

On appeal, the Tribunal held that the order challenged before it did not contain any details as to how and why the damages were awarded. No proper calculation had been shown in the order. Thus, the damages assessed under section 14B of the EPF Act, along with interest, were clearly arbitrary, were passed by the authority without proper reasons, and were thus not in accordance with law; the Tribunal set aside the said order. Thereafter, an appeal was made before the High Court.

It was noted that under the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, Section 14B allows the Central Provident Fund Commissioner to recover “damages” from employers who fail to make timely payments of mandatory contributions to the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), essentially acting as a penalty to incentivize compliance and ensure employees receive their full benefits by punishing employers for delayed payments; this includes contributions to the Pension Fund and Insurance Fund as well.

In the present case, the Tribunal rightly held that the order challenged before it did not contain any details as to how and why the damages were awarded. No proper calculation has been shown in the order.

High Court Held

The High Court held that the order passed by the authority does not speak as to how the delay was assessed. Sufficient explanation has been placed by the representative of the school, but no proper order has been passed by the authority.

Thus, the damages as assessed under Section 14B of the EPF Act, along with interest, are clearly arbitrary and have been passed by the authority (APFC (damage cell)) without proper reasons and were thus not in accordance with law. Therefore, the Tribunal was right to set aside the said order of the authority.

List of Cases Referred to

  • Cable Corpn. of India Ltd. v. Union of India 2006 SCC OnLine Bom 765 (para 6)
  • Employees’ State Insurance Corporation v. HMT Ltd. (2008) 3 SCC 35 (para 6)
  • Prestolite (India) Ltd. v. Regional Director 1994 Supp (3) SCC 690 (para 6)
  • Hindustan Times Ltd. v. Union of India 1998 taxmann.com 2214 (SC) (para 6)
  • Sun Pressings (P) Ltd. v. Presiding Officer 2024 (1) Writ L.R. 801 (para 6)
  • Organo Chemicals Industries v. Union of India (1979) 4 SCC 573 (para 7)
  • Horticulture Experiment Station Gonikoppal, Coorg v. Regional Provident
  • Fund Organisation (2022) 4 SCC 516 (para 8)

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SEBI Enables Digital Signature Facility For FPIs

SEBI FPI Registration

PR No. 03/2026; Dated: 08.01.2026

1. Introduction

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has taken another significant step towards digitisation by facilitating seamless Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) functionality for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs). Announced vide PR No. 03/2026 dated 8 January 2026, the move aims to simplify and modernise the FPI onboarding process in India.

2. Digitisation of FPI Onboarding

SEBI has enabled an integrated DSC facility within the Common Application Form (CAF) portal, thereby digitising a key component of FPI registration. This initiative allows FPIs to complete critical authentication requirements electronically, reducing reliance on physical documentation and manual processes.

3. Unified Registration and DSC Process

Under the new functionality, FPIs can apply for a Digital Signature Certificate directly from Indian certifying authorities while submitting their FPI registration application on the CAF portal. By integrating DSC application and FPI registration into a single, unified process, SEBI has eased procedural complexities and improved operational efficiency for FPI applicants.

4. Benefits for FPIs and Market Efficiency

The enhanced digital framework is expected to significantly reduce onboarding timelines and compliance burdens for FPIs. It promotes ease of doing business, enhances transparency, and supports faster access to Indian capital markets, making India a more attractive destination for foreign portfolio investments.

5. Conclusion

SEBI has encouraged FPI applicants to make optimal use of the enhanced digital functionality available on the CAF portal. This initiative aligns with SEBI’s broader objective of leveraging technology to strengthen market infrastructure, streamline regulatory processes, and foster a more efficient and investor-friendly securities market ecosystem.

Click Here To Read The Full Press Release 

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Assessment Against Legal Heir Invalid Without Estate Rep | HC

Assessment Of Deceased Assessee

Case Details: Baratam Satish vs. Joint Commissioner of Central Tax - [2026] 182 taxmann.com 89 (Andhra Pradesh)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • R Raghunandan Rao &  T.C.D. Sekhar, JJ.
  • C Sanjeeva Rao for the Petitioner.
  • Y N Vivekananda for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

The petitioner, being the son and legal heir of a deceased person, challenged the assessment order passed against him relating to the tax, interest, and penalty liabilities of his father. The assessment was initiated after the death of the petitioner’s father, and the order was passed against the petitioner as the legal heir. It was contended that proceedings cannot be validly carried out against a deceased as it requires involvement of either the representative or the person carrying on the business of the deceased, or, if such business was not being carried on, the legal representative holding the estate of the deceased. The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

High Court Held

The High Court held that assessment proceedings can only be initiated against living persons and any proceedings against a deceased person are invalid. The Court clarified that tax dues of a deceased person may be recovered from the business of the deceased if it is continued by a legal representative or any other person, or from the estate if the business has been discontinued. In the absence of specific guidance under Section 93 of the CGST Act, the practicable approach for settling the affairs of a deceased person is to involve the representative, the person carrying on the business, or the legal representative holding the estate. Any recovery would be limited to the estate of the deceased.

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