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Limitation for Tax Recovery Sale Runs From SLP Dismissal | HC

Limitation for tax recovery

Case Details: Smt. Kumari Kanagam vs. Tax Recovery Officer - [2026] 183 taxmann.com 356 (Madras)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Senthilkumar Ramamoorthy, J.
  • D. Vijayakumar for the Petitioner.
  • A.P. Srinivas, Sr. Standing Counsel & A.N.R. Jayaprathap, Jr. Standing Counsel for the Respondent.

Facts of the Case

An assessment order under block assessment was issued to the assessee, imposing a tax liability of Rs. 68.14 lakhs. The assessee filed an appeal before the High Court, which was dismissed. A Special Leave Petition was then filed against that judgment, but it was also dismissed.

Meanwhile, following the issuance of the certificate under section 222, the Tax Recovery Officer issued an order of attachment regarding the immovable property of the assessee. Much later, based on a certificate for the recovery of Rs. 6.13 lakhs, another attachment order was issued. To recover these amounts, a proclamation of sale was issued in Form No. I.T.C.P. 13. The proclamation of sale was challenged in the writ petition.

The principal ground on which the assessee challenged the sale was that the limitation period of three years prescribed in Rule 68B of the Second Schedule of the Income-tax Act had expired. Therefore, it was contended that the attachment order is vacated by operation of law under sub-rule 4 of rule 68B.

High Court Held

The Madras High Court ruled that the three-year limitation period for tax recovery starts from the end of the financial year in which the tax demand becomes final under Chapter XX or conclusive under section 245-I. The dispute was whether finality was established on 22-8-2012, when the High Court dismissed the appeal, or on 15-5-2015, when the Supreme Court dismissed the SLP.

The Court held that an order attains finality only when it is no longer capable of being set aside or modified. Although a statutory appeal to the Supreme Court could have been filed under section 261, the assessee instead filed an SLP; nonetheless, the assessment order remained open to alteration until the disposal of the SLP. Therefore, finality was reached only on 15-5-2015.

Since this date fell in FY 2015-16, the limitation period ran from 31-3-2016 to 31-3-2019, and the sale proclamation issued on 12-6-2018 was within time.

The Court further held that failure to sell the property within the limitation period only results in the vacation of the attachment under Rule 65B(4) and does not extinguish the department’s recovery rights. Although recovery under the second certificate was limited to Rs. 6.13 lakh, proceedings under the first certificate were within the limitation period. Accordingly, the writ petition was dismissed.

List of Cases Referred to

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AICTE CAS Regulations Not Applicable to Direct Professor Recruitment | SC

AICTE regulations

Case Details: Gujarat Public Service Commission vs. Gnaneshwary Dushyantkumar Shah - [2026] 182 taxmann.com 503 (SC)

Judiciary and Counsel Details

  • Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha & Alok Aradhe, JJ.

Facts of the Case

In the instant case, the appellant-Commission issued an advertisement for recruitment to the post of Professor in the Government Engineering Colleges in Gujarat under the Government Engineering Colleges Recruitment Rules, 2012.

The Respondent-candidate applied for the post, appeared in an interview, but was not recommended for the selection. She filed a writ petition invoking the AICTE (Career Advancement Scheme) Regulations, 2012 and challenging the selection process. The Single Judge dismissed the writ petition.

The Division Bench held that the AICTE Regulations governed even direct recruitment to the post of Professor in the Government Engineering Colleges, invalidated the selection process for the post, set aside the Single Judge’s order, and directed the Commission to constitute the selection committee and evaluate candidates adhering to the AICTE Regulations.

Supreme Court Held

The Supreme Court observed that the AICTE Regulations are not recruitment regulations but rather regulations framed to advance the careers of incumbent teachers already embedded in the academic system. Therefore, the AICTE Regulations do not apply to the process of direct recruitment under the State Rules.

The Supreme Court held that, since the candidate had participated in the selection process without protest, she could not challenge the Rules of the game after being declared unsuccessful. Thus, the impugned order passed by the Division Bench was to be quashed and set aside.

List of Cases Reviewed

  • Order of High Court of Gujarat (Division Bench) in LPA-866-2025, dated 20.08.2025 (para 20) set aside
  • Anupal Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2020) 2 SCC 173 (para 18) followed

List of Cases Referred to

  • Anupal Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2020) 2 SCC 173 (para 18).

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[Analysis] Finance Bill 2026 – Tax Exemption for Foreign Companies Procuring Data Centre Services in India

Foreign company data centre tax exemption Finance Bill 2026

Foreign company data centre tax exemption (Finance Bill 2026) refers to a proposed provision under the Finance Bill 2026 that grants a tax exemption to foreign companies earning income in India from data centre services procured from a data centre owned and operated by an Indian company. The exemption applies only if the foreign company does not own or operate the physical infrastructure, makes all sales to Indian users through an Indian reseller, and complies with prescribed conditions notified by the Central Government. This measure aims to incentivise the utilisation of digital infrastructure and to clarify the tax treatment of cross-border data centre service arrangements.

Table of Contents

  1. Understanding Data Centres
  2. Conditions for Exemption
  3. Practical Illustration

The Finance Bill, 2026, proposed a significant tax incentive for foreign companies until the tax year 2046-47. The exemption under the proposed provision applies to a foreign company from any income accruing or arising in India, or deemed to accrue or arise in India, from procuring data centre services from a data centre owned and operated by an Indian company. The exemption is available on fulfilment of certain important conditions that the Central Government should notify the foreign company, it does not own or operate any of the physical infrastructure or any resources of the data centre, all sales by such foreign co. to users located in India are made through a reseller entity, being an Indian company and the foreign company maintains and furnishes the prescribed information in the prescribed manner.

To understand the exemption, it is imperative to understand how data centres operate, the parties involved in the ecosystem, and the revenue streams.

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1. Understanding Data Centres

A data centre is a dedicated, secure facility that houses servers, continuously stores data, and runs applications. These facilities are essential for modern digital infrastructure, providing the backbone for cloud computing, email services, banking applications, and countless other digital services. Data centres offer economies of scale and professional expertise that most organisations cannot replicate cost-effectively. They need a reliable power supply with backup generators, sophisticated cooling systems, physical security, and round-the-clock technical support. For businesses, renting space and services from a professional data centre is far more economical than building and maintaining proprietary infrastructure.

A data centre ecosystem comprises many players: Infrastructure or Colocation Providers, Cloud Service Providers, Managed Service Providers (MSPs), Application Providers, Resellers, Network Service Providers, and Disaster Recovery & Backup Service Providers. However, for the foreign company to claim the new tax exemption, the following key parties must work together:

1.1 Data Centre Providers

They fall into two main categories: Infrastructure and Colocation providers.

Infrastructure providers own and operate complete data centres, including the building, power infrastructure, cooling systems, network connectivity, and servers/hardware. Customers lease computing resources, such as virtual machines, storage, and bandwidth, on a subscription basis, without owning any physical equipment.

Colocation providers, in contrast, own the data centre facility and infrastructure, including the building, power, cooling, physical security, and network connectivity. Still, customers bring and own their own servers and hardware. Customers retain full control over their equipment and are responsible for managing, maintaining, and upgrading their servers.

1.2 Cloud Service Providers

These are the large technology companies that provide computing resources, storage, and services over the internet. Companies like Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform fall into this category. They either build their own massive data centres or lease significant space from infrastructure providers, then fill it with their own standardised equipment.

1.3 Resellers

Resellers purchase data centre or cloud services from primary providers and sell them to end customers, often adding additional services, customisation, or industry-specific expertise. They don’t typically own any physical infrastructure themselves but act as intermediaries in the sales and support chain.

The table below gives an overview of the parties involved in a data centre ecosystem and their revenue stream:

Party Type

Role in Ecosystem

Revenue Streams

Infrastructure or Colocation Providers (Data Centre Operators) [i.e., Netmagic (NTT), Adani Data Networks]
  • Own and operate physical data centre facilities;
  • Provide foundational infrastructure for hosting servers and equipment
  • Rent per rack or square footage
  • Power consumption charges
  • Network connectivity fees
Cloud Service Providers [i.e., AWS, Azure, JioCloud, Tata Communications, etc.)
  • Deploy server infrastructure
  • Provide scalable computing, storage, and platform services over the internet
  • Offer compute, storage, database, AI/ML services
  • Provide APIs and developer tools
  • Maintain a global network of interconnected regions
  • Compute hours (virtual machine usage)
  • Storage fees
  • Data transfer and bandwidth charges
  • Premium services (databases, AI/ML, analytics)
  • Marketplace commissions (third-party apps)
Resellers [i.e., Redington India, Ingram Micro India, etc.)
  • Purchase cloud and infrastructure services from providers
  • Resell with added customisation
  • Markup on resold services
  • Implementation and setup fees
  • Support and maintenance fees

2. Conditions for Exemption

Among other conditions, which are simple to understand, the following are the key aspects:

  1. The foreign company procures data centre services from an Indian company,
  2. Data centre services are taken from a data centre owned and operated by an Indian company, and
  3. It sells those services to Indian users through an Indian reseller.

2.1 Procuring the Data Centre Services

The exemption applies to a foreign company that procures data centre services from an Indian data centre. As discussed above, data centres can be operated by either Colocation Providers or Infrastructure Providers. It appears that, for the foreign company to claim the exemption, the exemption provision applies only when the infrastructure provider operates the data centres. If the foreign company obtains data centre services in a colocation model, in which it brings its servers, computers, etc., the exemption will be denied.

To support this conclusion, we can take the following arguments:

  1. The definition of ‘data centre service’ as provided in Note 3(b) of Table in Schedule IV specifies that a data centre should provide the services through the use of physical infrastructure, including servers, computers, storage systems, operating systems, etc.
  2. The definition mentions rendering services “through the use of,” which suggests that the data centre should operate servers and computers.
  3. One of the conditions in Column D of the Table states that the foreign company does not own or operate any of the data centre’s resources.

2.2 An Indian Company Owns and Operates the Data Centre

Note 3(c) of Table in Schedule IV specifies the meaning of ‘specified data centre’. It means a data centre set up under an approved scheme and owned and operated by an Indian company. The definition only requires that it should be owned by an Indian company and set up under an approved scheme. When this definition is read in conjunction with the meaning of ‘data centre service’ provided in Note 3(b) of the Table in Schedule IV, it indicates that all resources and infrastructure should be located in India. There is no clarity on whether a data centre set up by an Indian company underwater in international waters[1], or in space[2], will still be eligible for the exemption for the foreign company.

2.3 Sales to Users Located In India Are Made Through a Reseller Entity

The exemption for the foreign company applies if all sales by the foreign company to users in India are made through an Indian reseller. This condition indicates that the:

  1. Sales to users in India should be made through the Indian reseller. Sales to overseas users can be done directly by the foreign company, and the question of exemption from such income does not arise, as this income is not deemed to accrue or arise in India[3].
  2. The Indian reseller may be the same as or different from the Indian company operating the data centre.
  3. The Indian reseller may also be a subsidiary of a foreign company.

3. Practical Illustration

There are four parties in the transaction relating to the data centre:

  1. SCloud Pte Ltd (a Singapore-based cloud management platform)
  2. DC Ltd (an Indian data centre), RS India Ltd (an Indian reseller)
  3. OTT Pvt Ltd (the Indian end user)
  4. OS Inc. (the Singapore-based end user).

The details of the transaction between the parties are as follows:

  • DC enters into an agreement with SCloud to provide 50 servers, 10 TB of storage, power, cooling, and facility services for Rs. 7,00,000 per month. DC owns and operates all physical equipment, while SCloud has only API access to manage virtual resources and no ownership or physical control.
  • SCloud enters into a reseller agreement with RS, offering managed cloud services (including the DC infrastructure, SCloud proprietary management platform, orchestration software, 24/7 monitoring, technical support, and analytics) for Rs. 13,50,000 per month.
  • SCloud enters into a cloud service agreement with OS, under which SCloud offers managed cloud services for USD 50,000 per month.
  • RS enters into a contract with OTT to provide a complete managed cloud solution for Rs. 18,00,000 per month, adding value through local sales support, Hindi-language assistance, billing services, and account management.

The taxability of such sum under the DTAA and Income-tax Act shall be as follows:

Particulars Earnings of Service Provider Per Month Whether Conditions of Entry 13C of Schedule IV Fulfilled? Whether Income is Deemed to Accrue or Arise in India Under Section 9? Whether Taxable in India Under ITA? Whether Taxable in India Under DTAA? Whether Taxable in India in View of Section 159(4) of ITA?
DC provides access to the data centre to SCloud Rs. 7 lakhs Yes

[Section 26]

SCloud enters into a reseller agreement with RS Rs. 13.50 lakhs Yes Yes

[Section 9(2)]

No

[Schedule IV: Table, Sl. No. 13C]

No

[Article 7 of the Singapore DTAA]

No
SCloud enters into a cloud service agreement with OS USD 50,000 No No

[Section 9(9)]

No No

[Article 7 of the Singapore DTAA]

No
RS enters into a contract with OTT Rs. 18 lakhs Yes

[Section 26]

The income of SCloud would be exempt from Indian tax, provided SCloud is notified by the Central Government and DC Ltd qualifies as a specified data centre. SCloud’s income from OS Inc. (overseas user) is not deemed to accrue in India and falls outside the scope of the exemption. However, it would generally not be taxable in India unless there is a permanent establishment.


[1] https://brightlio.com/underwater-data-centers/

[2] https://www.datacenterdynamics.com/en/news/spacex-files-for-million-satellite-orbital-ai-data-center-megaconstellation/

[3] A ‘business connection’ may not be exist as the operations are carried out outside India and the transaction is not carried out with any person in India.

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Industrial Relations Code Amendment Receives President’s Assent

Industrial Relations Code Amendment Act 2026

Act No. 1 of 2026, dated 16-2-2026

The Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Act, 2026 has received the assent of the President of India, formally bringing the amendment into the statute book.

The Act provides legal clarity on the repeal of earlier labour laws and transitional arrangements under the Industrial Relations Code framework.

1. Repeal of Existing Labour Laws

The Amendment Act provides for repeal of the following enactments:

  • Trade Unions Act, 1926
  • Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
  • Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

The repeal will take effect from the date notified under Section 1(3) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

2. Continuity of Existing Tribunals and Authorities

To ensure a smooth transition:

  • Tribunals and statutory authorities constituted under the repealed enactments
  • Shall continue to function
  • Until corresponding authorities under the Industrial Relations Code become operational

This provision prevents disruption in dispute resolution and regulatory functions during the transition phase.

3. Transitional Safeguards

The amendment ensures:

  • Continuity of adjudication and administrative processes
  • Protection of ongoing proceedings and actions
  • Gradual shift from legacy labour laws to the consolidated Code framework

4. Legislative Objective

The Act aims to:

  • Provide statutory clarity on repeal of earlier labour enactments
  • Ensure continuity of institutional mechanisms
  • Facilitate seamless implementation of the Industrial Relations Code
  • Support the broader labour law consolidation framework

5. Key Takeaway

With Presidential assent to the Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Act, 2026, the repeal of three major labour laws stands aligned with the Code’s commencement framework, while ensuring that existing tribunals and authorities continue to function until new institutional mechanisms under the Code are fully operational.

Click Here To Read The Full Update

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[Global IDT Insights] EU Anti-Dumping Duty on Fused Alumina | Ukraine VAT Relief

EU anti-dumping duty

Editorial Team – [2026] 183 taxmann.com 471 (Article)

Global IDT Insights provides a weekly snippet of tax news specifically related to Indirect Taxes from around the globe.

1. EU Imposes Anti-Dumping Duties on Imports of Fused Alumina from China

The European Commission has imposed definitive anti-dumping duties on imports of fused alumina from the People’s Republic of China. The duties range from 88.7% to 110.6% and will apply for an initial period of five years. A duty-free tariff rate quota has been introduced to allow a limited volume of imports from China to enter the EU without duties.

The measures follow an investigation identifying unfair trade practices and aim to address injurious dumping onto the EU market. Fused alumina is used in the production of steel, other metals, glass, ceramics, and defence-related applications.

Key aspects of this decision include:

(a) Definitive Anti-Dumping Duties – Imports of fused alumina from China are subject to duties ranging from 88.7% to 110.6%. These duties will apply for an initial period of five years. The measure is designed to address unfair pricing practices identified during the investigation.

(b) Duty-Free Tariff Rate Quota – A limited volume of imports from China may enter the EU duty-free under a tariff rate quota. Imports exceeding this quota are subject to the anti-dumping duties. The quota will gradually be reduced over the five-year period.

(c) Strategic Importance of Fused Alumina – Fused alumina is used across key industrial sectors, including steel and metal production, glass and ceramics manufacturing, and defence-related applications.

(d) Economic Impact – The EU market for fused alumina is valued at approximately €400-500 million. Of an estimated 3,80,000 tonnes imported, about 2,00,000 tonnes are from China.

(e) EU Industry Profile – The EU-based fused alumina industry employs around 1,000 people and is located in Austria, France, Germany, Hungary, Italy, and Slovenia.

Source – Official Announcement

Click Here To Read The Full Article

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RBI Revises IRACP Norms for NBFCs and Co-op Banks

RBI IRACP amendment

RBI/2025-26/208 DOR.STR.REC.411/21-04-048/2025-26; Dated: 13.02.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued Amendment Directions relating to Income Recognition, Asset Classification and Provisioning (IRACP) applicable to Rural Co-operative Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).

The amendments aim to reinforce prudential discipline and ensure consistency in recognition of income and classification of loan assets.

1. Income Recognition Based on Record of Recovery

The revised directions reiterate that:

  • The policy on income recognition must be strictly based on the record of recovery
  • Recognition of income should reflect actual realisation rather than notional accrual

This strengthens prudential accounting practices and prevents overstatement of income.

2. Accrual-Based Recognition for Standard Assets

Under the amended framework:

  • Banks and NBFCs may recognise income on an accrual basis
  • Only for credit facilities classified as ‘Standard’ assets

Once a loan account ceases to be standard, accrual-based income recognition is no longer permitted.

3. Treatment of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)

For loan accounts classified as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs):

  • Income recognition must follow prudential norms linked to actual recovery
  • Accrued income cannot be recognised unless realised

This ensures accurate reflection of asset quality and financial performance.

4. Upgradation of NPAs to Standard Category

The amendment clarifies that:

  • NPA accounts may be upgraded to ‘Standard’ assets
  • Only when the borrower pays entire arrears of interest and principal

Partial repayment or restructuring without full clearance of overdue amounts will not qualify for upgradation.

5. Regulatory Objective

The amended IRACP directions aim to:

  • Strengthen asset quality recognition
  • Ensure conservative and realistic income recognition
  • Improve transparency in financial statements
  • Align prudential norms across regulated entities

6. Key Takeaway

RBI’s amended IRACP directions reinforce recovery-based income recognition and strict conditions for upgradation of NPAs, requiring full repayment of overdue principal and interest before an account can be reclassified as a standard asset.

Click Here To Read The Full Update

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RBI Revises Capital Market Exposure and Lending Norms

RBI capital market exposure norms

Press Release: 2025-2026/2117, Dated: 13.02.2026

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued Amendment Directions on Capital Market Exposure applicable to commercial banks and small finance banks, following stakeholder feedback on the draft directions released on 24 October 2025.

The amendments aim to provide greater operational flexibility while strengthening prudential oversight in capital market-related lending.

1. Objective of the Amendments

The revised directions seek to:

  • Provide an enabling framework for financing acquisitions by Indian corporates
  • Enhance lending limits in certain categories
  • Remove specific quantitative ceilings to allow greater flexibility
  • Introduce a more principle-based approach to capital market exposure

These changes are intended to support capital market development while maintaining risk management safeguards.

2. Enabling Framework for Financing Acquisitions

The amendments introduce provisions to facilitate:

  • Financing of acquisitions by Indian corporates
  • Structured lending arrangements for such transactions

This move aims to support corporate restructuring, consolidation, and investment activity within a prudential framework.

3. Enhancement of Lending Limits

The revised framework enhances limits for certain categories of lending linked to capital market exposure, allowing banks greater flexibility in extending credit within defined risk management parameters.

This is expected to improve credit flow to market-linked activities while ensuring adequate oversight.

4. Removal of Ceiling on Lending Against Listed Debt Securities

A key amendment is the:

  • Removal of the ceiling on lending against listed debt securities

This provides banks with additional flexibility to extend loans secured by such instruments, subject to internal risk management and prudential norms.

5. Principle-Based Framework for Lending to Intermediaries

The amended directions introduce a more principle-based framework for lending to:

  • Capital market intermediaries
  • Related entities engaged in market activities

Instead of rigid quantitative restrictions, banks are required to rely on:

  • Board-approved policies
  • Internal risk assessment
  • Prudential exposure norms

This approach aligns with evolving market practices and risk-based supervision.

6. Key Takeaway

The RBI’s amended capital market exposure framework provides enhanced flexibility for banks in financing acquisitions, lending against listed debt securities, and extending credit to capital market participants, while shifting toward a principle-based, risk-sensitive regulatory approach.

Click Here To Read The Full Press Release

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Weekly Round-up on Tax and Corporate Laws | 9th to 14th February 2026

Tax and Corporate Laws; Weekly Round up 2025

This weekly newsletter analytically summarises the key stories reported at taxmann.com during the previous week from Feb 09th  to Feb 14th 2026, namely:

  1. Liability Towards Leave Encashment and Bonus Payment Can’t be Transferred to Another Entity to Claim Section 43B Deduction: ITAT
  2. SEBI Proposes Key Reforms to Strengthen the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) Framework
  3. Govt. Notifies the Draft Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Dock Work) Central Regulations, 2026
  4. Govt. Invites Public Feedback on Draft Metalliferous Mines Safety Regulations, 2026 under OSH&WC Code, 2020
  5. Post Circular 173/05/2022 Deleting Restriction, Inverted Duty Refund Allowed Even When Input & Output Tax Rates Same: HC
  6. On Amalgamation, New Co. Receives Transferred ITC Only; Retained ITC If Refunded to Old Co., Bars Later Refund to New Co.: HC
  7. ICAI Releases New Practitioner’s Guide on Drafting Modified Opinions in Independent Auditor’s Reports
  8. AASB of ICAI Issues Guidance on New Labour Codes: Accounting and Auditing Implications

1. Liability Towards Leave Encashment and Bonus Payment Can’t be Transferred to Another Entity to Claim Section 43B Deduction: ITAT

The assessee-company, engaged in providing administrative support services to ”Corteva Group”, pursuant to its business transfer agreement, transferred one of its business undertakings along with certain employees on a slump sale basis to ”P” and filed its return of income claiming deduction towards leave encashment and bonus payment under section 43B on the ground that the liability arising out of provisions made for the financial year 2018-19 had been paid on 1-4-2019, which was on or before the due date for filing the return of income under section 139(1).

The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed the claim because the assessee had not proved the actual payment of said liabilities on or before the due date prescribed under section 139(1). The CIT(A) deleted the additions made by the AO towards the disallowance of liabilities under Section 43B. Aggrieved by the order, the AO filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

The Tribunal held that there is no concept of deemed payment of liability referred to under section 43B for claiming a deduction towards said liability while computing the income from business or profession. A person cannot, by contract, transfer or shift his statutory obligations to another and claim a deduction under section 43B. In order to claim a deduction under Section 43B, there should be actual payment of liability as stipulated thereon, and such payment, if made on or before the due date for filing the return of income under Section 139(1) in terms of the proviso to Section 43B, is allowable as a deduction.

In the present case, the assessee transferred the liability related to leave encashment, bonus payment of employees to the transferee undertaking and claimed that, upon transfer of said liability, the liability payable to the employees has been discharged by invoking a deeming fiction even though there is no provision under the Act, including section 43B of the Act, for deeming payment.

Whether the transferee entity has paid the employees and claimed deduction towards the said liability while computing income from business or profession is not relevant to decide whether the assessee can claim deduction for the said liability under Section 43B of the Act. The assessee cannot claim a deduction towards the said liability under section 43B of the Act while computing income from business and profession.

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2. SEBI Proposes Key Reforms to Strengthen the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) Framework

In a move to strengthen and broaden participation in the Social Stock Exchange ecosystem, the SEBI, on February 09, 2026, released a consultation paper proposing a review of the minimum value of investment by individual investors in Social Impact Funds (SIFs) and a review of requirements relating to minimum subscription and the registration period for Not for Profit Organisations (NPOs) on the Social Stock Exchange under the relevant SEBI Regulations.

2.1 Background and Objective

A ‘social stock exchange’ (SSE) is a platform where social enterprises/organisations can raise funds from the public. The framework for the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) had been operationalised through SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018, the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 and through issuance of circulars from time to time, with the objective of facilitating fund raising by eligible Social Enterprises on the SSE platform.

To further strengthen the SSE framework, facilitate fundraising, and encourage wider participation by NPOs, the SEBI, in consultation with the Social Stock Exchange Advisory Committee (SSEAC), undertook a review of certain regulatory requirements under the existing SSE framework.

2.2 SEBI’s Proposals

Based on the internal deliberations and discussions with SSEAC, SEBI has proposed the following:

  • Reduction in Minimum Value of Investment by Individual Investors in Social Impact Funds – Under the existing provisions of the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, an individual investor must invest a minimum of Rs. 2 lakhs in a Social Impact Fund that invests only in securities issued by NPOs registered or listed on the SSE. The SEBI has now proposed reducing this amount to Rs. 1,000.
    The proposal seeks to align the minimum investment requirement under the AIF Regulations with the minimum application size prescribed for subscription to Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments (ZCZP) under the ICDR Regulations, which was earlier reduced in order to enhance investor participation. The proposed reduction would also enable SIFs to attract small investors to invest in securities of NPOs through the SIF.
  • Extension of Registration Period for NPOs on SSE from 2 to 3 Years – Presently, Regulation 292F of the ICDR Regulations permits an NPO to remain registered on the SSE for a maximum period of two years without undertaking fundraising activities. The SEBI has proposed extending this period by one additional year, subject to approval by the Social Stock Exchange.
    The proposal recognises practical challenges faced by NPOs, including delays in obtaining statutory registrations, renewing approvals under applicable laws, and other operational considerations that may delay fundraising timelines. The extension is intended to provide greater flexibility to NPOs in preparing for fundraising while continuing to remain within the SSE framework.
  • Reduction in Minimum Subscription Requirement for Issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments (ZCZP) from 75% to 50% – Based on the recommendations of SSEAC, the SEBI has proposed reducing the minimum subscription requirement for the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments from 75% to 50% for projects where the cost of disclosed objects can be proportionately allocated on a ‘per unit’ basis. This would be subject to appropriate due diligence by the SSEs.
    The proposal is intended to provide balanced flexibility while ensuring that partial subscription does not adversely affect project implementation and that the funds raised can be meaningfully used towards the disclosed objectives. The Social Stock Exchanges would be required to undertake appropriate due diligence to satisfy themselves of the feasibility of implementation at lower subscription levels before granting approval for such fund raising.

2.3 Conclusion

The proposed measures reflect SEBI’s intent to make the Social Stock Exchange framework more accessible, flexible, and conducive to participation by both investors and Not-for-Profit Organisations. By lowering the minimum investment threshold, extending the registration validity period for NPOs, and easing subscription requirements for ZCZP issuances, the proposals aim to enhance fundraising efficiency, broaden investor participation, and strengthen the effectiveness of the SSE ecosystem while maintaining appropriate regulatory safeguards.

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3. Govt. Notifies the Draft Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Dock Work) Central Regulations, 2026

Section 136 of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 (OSH&WC Code), empowers the Central Government to make regulations relating to mines and dock work. Accordingly, the Central Government vide notification dated February 9, 2026, has notified the draft Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Dock Work) Central Regulations, 2026, prescribed under the OSH&WC Code. The draft regulations apply to all the major ports in India as defined in the Indian Port Act, 2025. Objections and Suggestions can be submitted within 45 days from the date of publication in the Official Gazette.  The key highlights of the draft Regulations are as follows:

  • Qualifications of Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator or Inspectors-cum-Facilitators – As per the draft regulations, the central government may, by notification in the official gazette, appoint persons as it thinks fit and possessing a degree in any branch of engineering or science from a recognised university or institute to be Chief inspector-cum-facilitator or inspector-cum-facilitator.
  • Safety Measures for Dock Workers Onboard – Every employer of the dock worker must ensure the following safety measures for the dock workers working onboard:
    1. Weather forecasts must be regularly checked and monitored.
    2. Individuals with compromised health conditions must be forbidden from engaging in work aboard vessels.
    3. Provision for the rescue from drowning of dock workers must be made and maintained.
  • Efficient Lighting Requirements – The draft regulations require the port authority in case of a dock, wharf and master in case of ship to ensure that all areas on a dock and a ship where the dock work is carried out and all approaches to such areas and locations to which dockworkers are required to go during their employment, must be safely and efficiently lighted in an appropriate way.
  • Providing and Maintaining Adequate Ventilation and Suitable Temperature in Every Building – As per the draft regulations, the port authority, in case of a dock, wharf, and master in case of ship, must ensure that all areas and buildings where goods are kept must be designed and constructed ensuring effective and suitable arrangements for securing and maintaining adequate ventilation through the circulation of fresh air and comfortable temperature.
  • Fire and Explosion Prevention Measures – As per the draft regulations, the port authority must ensure that every place where dock workers are employed is provided with sufficient and suitable fire-extinguishing equipment and an adequate water supply at ample pressure as per national standards. Further, fire-extinguishing equipment must be properly maintained and inspected at regular intervals, and a record must be maintained to that effect.
  • General Requirements Relating to Construction, Equipping and Maintenance for Safety of Working Places – The general requirements relating to construction, equipping and maintenance for the safety of working places on shore, ship, dock, structure and other places at which any dock work is carried on are as follows:
    1. The port authority, in the case of shore, and the master, in the case of a ship, must ensure that the maximum loads are not exceeded.
    2. Staircases in a warehouse or storage must be provided with a substantial handrail of 1 metre height and maintained. The protective handrail must be provided on the open sides of the staircase.
    3. Safe access to the deck cargo, hold ladders and any place of work must be ensured by securely installed steps or ladders.
    4. Cargo platforms must not be overloaded.
  • Filing of Annual Returns by Establishments – As per the draft regulations, every employer of an establishment must send annually a return relating to such establishment in Form IX to the Inspector-cum-facilitator having jurisdiction by 31st January following the end of each calendar year.

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4. Govt. Invites Public Feedback on Draft Metalliferous Mines Safety Regulations, 2026 under OSH&WC Code, 2020

Section 136 of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 (OSH&WC Code), empowers the Central Government to make regulations relating to mines and dock work. Accordingly, the Central Government vide notification dated February 4, 2026, has notified the draft Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Metalliferous Mines) Regulations, 2026, prescribed under the OSH&WC Code. The draft regulations apply to all mines except coal or oil mines. Objections and Suggestions can be submitted within 45 days from the date of publication in the Official Gazette.  The key highlights of the draft Regulations are as follows:

  • Constitution of the Board of Mining Examination – The draft regulations provide for the constitution of a Board of Mining Examination, consisting of the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator as the Chairperson (ex-officio) and five members possessing a degree in mining engineering. Each member of the Board other than its Chairperson must hold office for 3 years from the date of appointment or until their successor is appointed, whichever is later.
  • Qualifications of Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator or Inspectors-cum-Facilitators – As per the draft regulations, no person must be appointed as the Chief Inspector cum facilitator or Inspector-cum-Facilitator unless such person holds a degree in mining engineering from an educational institution approved by the Central Government.
  • Safety Management Plan – Under the draft regulations, the owner, agent and manager of every mine must:
    1. identify hazards to the health and safety of the persons employed at the mine to which they may be exposed while at work,
    2. assess the risks to health and safety to which employees may be exposed while they are at work,
    3. follow an appropriate process for identification of the hazards and assessment of risks
    4. record the list of hazards identified and risks assessed, and
    5. make those records available for inspection by the employees.
  • Maintenance of Reports, Records and Registers – As per the draft regulations, all reports, records and registers required to be maintained must be kept in interleaved bound paged registers and signed by the concerned competent persons or officials and countersigned by the manager.
  • Payment of Fees – The draft regulations provide that any fees payable must be paid through an electronic mode or any other means as specified from time to time by the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator.
  • Standing Orders – As per the draft regulations, the manager of every mine in which a mechanical ventilator other than an auxiliary fan is installed must submit standing orders specifying the action that must be taken with respect to the withdrawal of persons from the mine or part thereof in the event of a stoppage of the ventilator. The standing orders must be submitted within 30 days of installation to the Regional Inspector-cum-Facilitator.
  • Appeal to the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator – As per the draft regulations, an appeal against an order made by the Regional Inspector-cum-Facilitator may be preferred before the Chief Inspector-cum-Facilitator, who may confirm, modify or cancel the order. The appeal must be made within 15 days of receipt of the order by the aggrieved person.

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5. Post Circular 173/05/2022 Deleting Restriction, Inverted Duty Refund Allowed Even When Input & Output Tax Rates Same: HC

The High Court held that a refund of accumulated ITC under Section 54(3)(ii) cannot be denied merely because the principal input and output supplies attract the same tax rate, in view of Circular 173/05/2022 removing the earlier restriction. It held that Circular 135/05/2020 was inapplicable and that, after removal of the restriction, refund in same-rate cases was legally permissible.

5.1 Facts

The petitioner was engaged in the procurement of edible oils on payment of GST at the rate of 5 per cent, which were purchased in bulk and thereafter packed into retail containers of varying quantities and supplied as output under the same HSN Code at the same rate. Due to a higher rate of tax suffered on certain inputs used in the packing process, accumulated and unutilised input tax credit (ITC) arose, and the petitioner filed refund applications claiming a refund of the accumulated credit on account of the inverted duty structure. The officer rejected the refund claiming inverted duty structure was not available where input and output tax rates were the same. The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

5.2 Held

The High Court held that accumulation of credit arose due to the rate structure and not due to change in rates at different points of time. The restriction denying refund of accumulated credit in cases where the rate of tax on input and output supplies was the same stood deleted by way of substitution through Circular No. 173/05/2022-GST, dated 06-07-2022. The Court further held that the Department of Revenue was not justified in rejecting the petitioner’s refund claims. It was accordingly held that the petitioner was eligible to claim refund of accumulated ITC on account of inverted duty structure even where the tax rate on input and output supplies was the same, and the refund claim deserved to be allowed under Section 54 of the CGST Act and the Karnataka GST Act.

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6. On Amalgamation, New Co. Receives Transferred ITC Only; Retained ITC If Refunded to Old Co., Bars Later Refund to New Co.: HC

The High Court held that upon amalgamation, the transferee company is entitled only to such unutilized ITC as is actually transferred through FORM GST ITC-02, and where the transferor retained part of the ITC, and itself claimed refund, the statute does not permit the transferee to subsequently seek refund of such retained credit.

Facts

The petitioner was formed by the amalgamation of three entities, including an erstwhile company. The erstwhile company transferred nearly 80% of unutilized input tax credit (ITC) to the petitioner through FORM GST ITC-02, retaining the remainder. A refund application under the category ‘ITC accumulated due to Exports of Goods/Services without payment of Tax’, which was allowed by the competent authority. The petitioner later claimed refund of the remaining unutilized ITC of the erstwhile company, asserting that since the amalgamation transferred all rights and liabilities to the petitioner, it was entitled to refund under Section 54(3). The matter was accordingly placed before the High Court.

Held

The High Court held that on amalgamation, the business and adventure of the transferor company would transfer to the new company as per the sanctioned scheme, and the transferor was not restricted from transferring the entire unutilized ITC. The Court interpreted Section 18(3) and Rule 41(1) in their fundamental sense, emphasising that the enabling mechanism for transfer of unutilized ITC cannot be used in a way. Since the transferor company continued to file GSTR-3B returns and availed ITC after the effective date, the ITC rights and liabilities were crystallised in its electronic credit ledger, and the transferee could claim the ITC only if it was transferred as prescribed. Consequently, the petitioner could not claim refund of the retained unutilized ITC.

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7. ICAI Releases New Practitioner’s Guide on Drafting Modified Opinions in Independent Auditor’s Reports

The Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (AASB) of ICAI has issued the Practitioner’s Guide on drafting of Modified Opinions in Independent Auditor’s Reports to help auditors prepare clear, consistent, and standards-compliant modified opinions under SA 705.

The Guide provides practical guidance, illustrative report formats, and suggested wording for qualified opinions, adverse opinions, and disclaimers of opinion, supporting auditors in effectively communicating modifications in audit reports. It builds on earlier ICAI publications on reporting standards and modified opinions, offering enhanced practical support for applying auditing requirements in real-world situations.

The examples included are purely illustrative and do not replace professional judgment or the mandatory requirements of the Standards on Auditing.

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8. AASB of ICAI Issues Guidance on New Labour Codes – Accounting and Auditing Implications

The Government of India introduced four consolidated Labour Codes, replacing twenty-nine labour laws and significantly altering India’s labour compliance framework with effect from 21st November 2025. In response, the Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (AASB) of ICAI issued guidance to help auditors address the resulting accounting and auditing implications.

The revised wage definition and expanded employee coverage are expected to increase employee benefit obligations, particularly gratuity and leave liabilities. ICAI has clarified that such increases represent plan amendments, requiring recognition as past service cost under Ind AS 19, Employee Benefits and AS 15, Employee Benefits with impacts recognised immediately (or amortised where applicable) and reflected in interim financial statements. Periods prior to the effective date require disclosure as a non-adjusting event.

From an audit perspective, the changes fall within SA 250, Consideration of Laws and Regulations in an Audit of Financial Statements, increasing risks of material misstatement in payroll, statutory dues, and actuarial estimates. Auditors must evaluate payroll systems, internal controls, actuarial valuations, and management judgments with heightened professional scepticism. Material non-compliance may require modified opinions under SA 705, Modifications to the Opinion in the Independent Auditor’s Report, while significant disclosures may be highlighted through Emphasis of Matter under SA 706, Emphasis of Matter Paragraphs and Other Matter Paragraphs in the Independent Auditor’s Report.

Overall, the Labour Codes have significant implications for employee benefit accounting and audit risk assessment, requiring careful recognition, robust documentation, and enhanced audit procedures.

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[Opinion] Analysis of Legal Implications of Issuance of Notice for Reopening of Assessment on Borrowed Satisfaction

reopening of assessment

Dr Sanjay Bansal & Dr Puja Jaiswal – [2026] 183 taxmann.com 348 (Article)

Granting of sanction by the Specified Authority is a precondition for the Assessing Officer to assume jurisdiction under Section 148 of the Act to issue a reassessment notice. Before sanction is granted valid reasons on the basis of information received that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment are to be recorded by an Assessing Officer for the approval of the same by way of sanction by the specified authority, which is higher in rank, under Section 151 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 which is now equivalent to section 284 of Income Tax Act, 2025. Both under the new regime as well as under the old regime the power to grant sanction by different sanctioning authorities affects the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer to issue a reassessment notice under the Income Tax Act, 1961, therefore, the extent and the nature of power to be exercised by the sanctioning authorities assumes significance and importance, a deliberation in regard thereto would be necessary and useful, especially in view of the emerging trends arising from recent judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India as well as that of the High Courts.

The provisions regarding sanction impose a check upon the power of the Revenue to reopen assessment. The provision confers a responsibility on the Revenue to ensure that sanction of the specified authority is obtained by the Assessing Officer before issuing a notice under section 148. The purpose behind this procedural check is to save the assessees from harassment resulting from the mechanical reopening of assessments. The reason for conferring power on the sanctioning authorities under section 151 of the Act is to safeguard unnecessary harassment of the assessees by the Assessing Officers exercising the power of reassessment of the return of the assessee and re-adjudication of the final Order of assessment. As rightly observed by the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in Yum Restaurants Asia Pte. Ltd. v. Dy. DIT (No.2) that the purpose of the provisions of sanction is to introduce a supervisory check over the work of the Assessing Officer, particularly, in the context of reopening of assessment. The law expects the Assessing Officer to exercise the power under section 147 of the Act to reopen an assessment only after due application of mind. If for some reason, there is an error that creeps into this exercise by the Assessing Officer, then the law expects the superior officer to be able to correct that error. The provisions of sanction are charters to the Revenue to reopen earlier assessments and are sword for the Revenue and shield for the assessee. They ensure that the sword of reopening of assessment may not be used unless a superior Officer is satisfied that the conditions precedent for the exercise of power of reopening is fulfilled. The sanctioning authority, while exercising power under the Act has to examine reasons, material or grounds and to judge whether they are sufficient and relevant to the formation of the necessary belief on the part of the Assessing Officer and thereafter to record necessary satisfaction which should not be mechanical but as a result of application of mind, for the issuance of notice for reopening under the Act by the Assessing Officer. Where the requirement of the provisions of sanction are not fulfilled, the notice for reopening and the resultant assessment flowing there from would be invalid. Whether the action of the sanctioning authority is mechanical or not, including the question whether the reasons for the belief on the basis of which assessment has been reopened, have a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of belief and are not extraneous or irrelevant, is open to challenge in a Court of Law.

In view of the aforesaid background, the question of sanction on borrowed satisfaction would hinge primarily on the issue of conducting an enquiry by the Assessing Officer as a sequel to the information received which suggests that income chargeable to tax of an assessee has escaped assessment; and necessitating the protection of right of hearing of the assessee by the sanctioning authority before for reopening the assessment in the case of an assessee. Pursuant to the decision rendered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO wherein the procedure to be adopted by the Assessing Officer in the matter of reassessment proceedings was set out, by pronouncing that when the authorities issue notice(s) under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, the proper course of action for the assessee is first to file a reply an raise all his objections by inviting a speaking Order on such objections.

After about more than two and a half decades, by the Finance Act, 2021, new procedure of reassessment was brought in existence. As per the Memorandum explaining the provisions in the Finance Bill, 2021 one of the salient features of such new procedure has been stated as under:

“(vii) New section 148A of the Act proposes that before issuance of notice the Assessing Officer shall conduct enquiries, if required, and provide an opportunity of being heard to the assessee. After considering his reply, the Assessing Officer shall decide, by passing an order, whether it is a fit case for issue of notice under section 148 and serve a copy of such order along with such notice on the assessee. The Assessing Officer shall before conducting any such enquiries or providing opportunity to the assessee or passing such order obtain the approval of specified authority. However, this procedure of enquiry, providing opportunity and passing order, before issuing notice under section 148 of the Act, shall not be applicable in search or requisition cases.”

The relevant extract as per the Notes on Clauses reads as under:

“Clause 37 of the Bill seeks to insert a new section 148A in the Income tax Act relating to Conducting inquiry, providing opportunity before issue of notice under section 148.

It is proposed to insert a new section 148A, which seeks to provide that the Assessing Officer shall, before issuing any notice under section 148, (a) conduct any enquiry, if required, with the prior approval of specified authority, with respect to the information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.”

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RBI Proposes Framework for Bank Lending to REITs

RBI lending to REITs framework

Press Release: 2025-2026/2116, Dated: 13.02.2026

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued draft Amendment Directions for public comments proposing to allow commercial banks to extend finance to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs).

The proposal forms part of RBI’s ongoing efforts to align financing norms with evolving capital market structures while maintaining prudential safeguards.

1. Proposal to Allow Financing to REITs

Under the draft amendment:

  • Commercial banks may be permitted to extend finance to REITs
  • Such financing will be subject to appropriate prudential safeguards, including:
    1. Exposure limits
    2. Risk management norms
    3. Board-approved internal policies

This move aims to broaden funding avenues for REITs and support growth of the real estate investment ecosystem.

2. Harmonisation with InvIT Lending Guidelines

The draft also proposes to harmonise existing lending guidelines applicable to Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) across regulated entities.

2.1 Rationale

  • REITs and InvITs share similar structural and risk characteristics
  • Harmonised norms will:
    1. Ensure regulatory consistency
    2. Simplify compliance for banks and other regulated entities
    3. Facilitate efficient financing of infrastructure and real estate assets

3. Prudential Safeguards and Risk Management

While permitting financing, RBI intends to retain a strong prudential framework through:

  • Exposure ceilings
  • Risk-based lending policies
  • Ongoing monitoring of exposures
  • Compliance with existing capital market and real estate exposure norms

4. Public Consultation

RBI has invited comments from stakeholders and the public on the draft amendment directions.

  • Last date to submit comments – 6 March 2026

Feedback received will be considered before finalisation of the revised framework.

5. Key Takeaway

The proposed amendment seeks to enable bank financing to REITs within a prudential framework and harmonise lending norms with those applicable to InvITs, thereby supporting development of investment trust structures while maintaining financial stability safeguards.

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